202004241907 Homework 1 (Q2)

(a) State the Mean Value Theorem and the Taylor’s Theorem.

(b) Find an O(h^4) and an O(h^5) approximation to \cos h. Compare those approximate values to the actual value 0.9950042 when h=0.1. Correct answers in this question to seven decimal places.


Solution.

(a)

Theorem. (Mean-Value Theorem) Suppose f\in C[a,b], and f'(x) exists on (a,b). For every x\in [a,b] and some x_0\in [a,b],

f(x)=f(x_0)+f'(\eta (x))(x-x_0)

where \eta (x) is between x_0 and x.

Theorem. (Taylor’s Theorem) Suppose f\in C^n[a,b], and f^{(n+1)} exists on (a,b). For every x\in (a,b) and some x_0\in [a,b], there exists a number \eta (x) between x_0 and x with f(x)=P_n(x)+R_n(x), where

P_n(x)=f(x_0)+f'(x_0)(x-x_0)+ \displaystyle{\frac{f''(x_0)}{2!}}(x-x_0)^2+\cdots + \displaystyle{\frac{f^{(n)}(x_0)}{n!}(x-x_0)^n}, and

R_n(x)=\displaystyle{\frac{f^{(n+1)}(\eta (x))}{(n+1)!}}(x-x_0)^{n+1}.

(b) Let f(x)=\cos x. Then we have f'(x)=-\sin x, f''(x)=-\cos x, f'''(x)=\sin x, f^{(4)}(x)=\cos x, f^{(5)}(x)=-\sin x, etc. By Taylor expansion of \cos x at x_0, we have

\cos x=\cos x_0+(-\sin x_0)(x-x_0)+\displaystyle{\frac{-\cos x_0}{2!}}(x-x_0)^2+\displaystyle{\frac{\sin x_0}{3!}}(x-x_0)^3+\displaystyle{\frac{\cos x_0}{4!}}(x-x_0)^4+\displaystyle{\frac{-\sin x_0}{5!}}(x-x_0)^5+\cdots

Now letting x_0=0, we obtain further that

\cos x=1-\displaystyle{\frac{x^2}{2!}}+\displaystyle{\frac{x^4}{4!}}+\cdots =\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n)!}x^{2n}}

Thus, the O(h^4) approximation to \cos h is in the form of

\cos h=1-\displaystyle{\frac{h^2}{2!}}+O(h^4)

where O(h^4) is the higher-order terms \displaystyle{\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n)!}h^{2n}}.

And the O(h^5) approximation to \cos h is in the form of

\cos h=1-\displaystyle{\frac{h^2}{2!}}+\displaystyle{\frac{h^4}{4!}}+O(h^5)

where O(h^5) is the higher-order terms \displaystyle{\sum_{n=3}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{(2n)!}h^{2n}}.

Then, when h=0.1, \cos h in the O(h^4) approximation would be

\cos 0.1=1-\displaystyle{\frac{0.1^2}{2!}}=0.995;

whereas in the O(h^5) approximation,

\cos 0.1=1-\displaystyle{\frac{0.1^2}{2!}}+\displaystyle{\frac{0.1^4}{4!}}=0.995004166\approx 0.9950042\enspace \textrm{(corr. to 7 d.p.)}.

Given the actual value \cos h=0.9950042, the O(h^4) approximation has an absolute error of |0.9950042-0.995|=0.0000042 and a relative error of \displaystyle{\frac{|0.9950042-0.995|}{|0.9950042|}}=4.2210877\times 10^{-6}. And the O(h^5) approximation has an absolute error of |0.9950042-0.9950042|=0 and thus a relative error of zero.


Remark. The 0 error is owing to the correction of 7 decimal places in both the direct computation of \cos 0.1 and its O(h^5) approximation.

202004241649 Problem 2, Ch. 1 Sec. 1

Prove the following equalities:

(a) |ab|=|a|\cdot |b|;

(b) |a|^2=a^2;

(c) \displaystyle{\bigg|\frac{a}{b}\bigg|=\frac{|a|}{|b|}} (where b\neq 0);

(d) \sqrt{a^2}=|a|.


Proof.

(a) (proof by cases)

i. When a,b\geqslant 0:

|ab|=ab=|a||b|.

ii. When a,b< 0:

|ab|=ab=(-a)(-b)=|a||b|.

iii. When a\geqslant 0 and b<0:

|ab|=-ab=a(-b)=|a||b|.

iv. When a<0 and b\geqslant 0:

|ab|=-ab=(-a)b=|a||b|.

QED


(b) (proof by induction)

By making a stronger claim

P(n): For any positive integer n, |a^n|=|a|^n.

Proof.

The trivial cases n=0 and n=1 are evident.

Consider the case n=2,

\begin{aligned} |a^2| & = |a||a| \qquad \textrm{(by equality (a))} \\ & = |a|^2 \end{aligned}

P(2) is true.

Assume now that P(n) is true,

\begin{aligned} P(n+1): \qquad |a^{n+1}|& = |a^n\cdot a| \\ & = |a^n||a| \qquad \textrm{(by equality (a))}\\ & = |a|^n|a| \qquad \textrm{(by the assumption }P(n)\textrm{ is true)} \\ & = |a|^{n+1} \end{aligned}

it can be seen that P(n+1) is also true.

From the fact that P(2) is true and by the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) is true for all positive integers n.

It follows that |a|^2=|a^2|=a^2 holds.

QED


(c) (direct proof)

\because |a|=\displaystyle{\bigg|  \frac{a}{b}\cdot b\bigg|} =\bigg|\displaystyle{\frac{a}{b}}\bigg| |b|,

where the second equality sign is due to equality (a),

\therefore \displaystyle{\bigg| \frac{a}{b} \bigg| = \frac{|a|}{|b|}}.

QED


(d) (proof by definition)

The absolute value of a real number a, denoted by |a|, is defined by

|a|= \begin{cases} x & \textrm{if } x\geqslant 0, \\  -x & \textrm{if }x<0  \end{cases}

For any non-negative real number a, the symbol \sqrt{a} denotes the non-negative square root of a.

QED

202004241533 Problem 1, Ch. 1 Sec. 1

Prove that if a and b are real numbers then

||a|-|b||\leqslant |a-b|\leqslant |a|+|b|.


Proof.

As |a| is non-negative and -|a| non-positive, one has

Eq. (1):

-|a|\leqslant a\leqslant |a|

Eq. (2):

-|b|\leqslant b\leqslant |b|

Combining Eq. (1) and Eq. (2),

-(|a|+|b|)\leqslant a+b\leqslant |a|+|b|,

or, Eq. (3): (the triangle inequality)

|a+b|\leqslant |a|+|b|.

Applying the triangle inequality to |a-b|, one gets

Eq. (4):

|a-b|=|a+(-b)|\leqslant |a|+|-b|=|a|+|b|,

or, Eq. (4)’:

|a-b|\leqslant |a|+|b|.

Applying the triangle inequality to |a|=|(a-b)+b|, one gets

Eq. (5):

|a|=|(a-b)+b|\leqslant |a-b|+|b|,

or, Eq. (5)’:

|a|-|b|\leqslant |a-b|.

Applying the triangle inequality to |b|=|(b-a)+a|, one gets

Eq. (6):

|b|=|(b-a)+a|\leqslant |b-a|+|a|,


Roughwork.

\begin{aligned} |b|-|a| & \leqslant |b-a| \\|b|-|a| & \leqslant |a-b| \\-|a-b| & \leqslant |a|-|b|\end{aligned}


or, Eq. (6)’:

-|a-b| \leqslant |a|-|b|

Combining Eq. (5)’ and Eq. (6)’:

-|a-b| \leqslant |a|-|b| \leqslant |a-b|,

or, Eq. (7):

||a|-|b||\leqslant |a-b|.

Combining Eq. (4)’ and Eq. (7), one obtains readily

||a|-|b||\leqslant |a-b|\leqslant |a|+|b|.

QED

202004240713 Homework 1 (Q3)

Suppose G be a finite group of even order. Prove that there exists an element a\in G such that a\neq e and a^2=e.


Attempts.

Try negating the statement by the following:

\forall\, a\in G, either a=e or a^2\neq e,

then looking for contradiction to the assumption that G should be a finite group of even order.


CASE 1: Would it be possible that a=e?

Given so, the inverse and the identity of G would be e. And the set G would have contained e only, i.e., the singleton set G=\{ e\}. This contradicts with the assumption that its order be even.

CASE 2: If for all elements in the group G, their order cannot ever be 2.

If a^2\neq e, then a\neq a^{-1} for all a\in G. It would then become an ill-posited negation, because the identity element e is one of all a\in G, and both statements e^2\neq e and e\neq e^{-1} are abhorrent to the basic axioms of a group. So perhaps to my discretion e should be precluded from a‘s, and understood as one (e=e^{-1}) member apart from the other members.

Proceeding to observe that if a\neq a^{-1} for all a\in G, I may then construct a pair of a_i and a_i^{-1} for i\in \{ 1,2,\dots ,n:n\in\mathbb{Z}^+\}, provided from the definition of a group that the inverse of each element must exist and, as it follows, that it must be unique. That is, if a_5=a_{27}^{-1}, I may relabel a_{27} as a_5^{-1}. By such a construction I can guarantee that all elements, except the identity e, are now in pairs.

One therefore, by counting in total how many elements there are in group G, will get an odd number (2n+1), the 2n counted from the pairs, and the single 1 the identity e itself alone counts.

This contradicts with the assumption that |G| be of even parity.

From the negation of statement arises contradiction, the original statement is therefore proven by contradiction.

Remark.

I could not prove otherwise than loosely to so naive myself. Not until I had survived mathematical rigor.

202004240630 Homework 1 (Q2)

Call G a group and e the identity of G. If the order of G is 2, then a^2=e for all a\in G and G is abelian (Prove it yourself). Show that

G is abelian if a^2=e for all a\in G.

Give an example of such a group whose order is greater than 2.


Solution.

Recall that a group G is said to be abelian if xy=yx for all x,y\in G.

For any a,b\in G, there is ab=(bb^{-1})ab(a^{-1}a), because a group satisfies, first, the inverse axiom xx^{-1}=x^{-1}x=e under the notation x^{-1} being the inverse of x, and secondly, the identity axiom ex=xe=x.

Thence by (associativity axiom) x*(y*z)=(x*y)*z I may change brackets and obtain as follows:

\begin{aligned} ab & =(bb^{-1})ab(a^{-1}a) \\ & =b(b^{-1}a)(ba^{-1})a \\ & =b(b^{-1}a)(b^{-1}a)^{-1}a \end{aligned}

Provided that a^2=e for all a\in G, one may deduce a=a^{-1}, b=b^{-1}, etc. Thus,

ab=b(b^{-1}a)(b^{-1}a)a

In addition (b^{-1}a)(b^{-1}a)=(b^{-1}a)^2=e, hence ab=ba, and G abelian.

The product group \mathbb{Z}_2\times \mathbb{Z}_2 is an example of one abelian group whose order is greater than 2 and the order of whose elements is 2.

202004240606 Homework 1 (Q1)

Let G=\{ a,b,c,d\} and the Cayley table of G be

\begin{aligned} * \quad | &\textrm{} \quad a &\textrm{}\quad b \quad &\textrm{}\quad c &\textrm{}\quad d \\ \hline a \quad | &\quad a &\quad b \quad &\quad c &\quad d \\ b \quad | &\quad b &\quad a \quad &\quad c &\quad d \\ c \quad | &\quad c &\quad b \quad &\quad a &\quad d \\ d \quad | &\quad d &\quad d \quad &\quad b &\quad c \end{aligned}

Is (G,*) a group?


Attempts.

I recall that a group (G,*) is a set G altogether with an operation *:G\times G\rightarrow G, (x,y)\mapsto x*y such that the following axioms be satisfied:

i. (Associativity) (x*y)*z=x*(y*z);

ii. (Identity) There exists e\in G such that e*x=x*e=x for all x\in G; and

iii. (Inverse) For each a\in G, there exists b\in G such that a*b=b*a=e.


Let me check them one by one.

i. For x,y,z\in \{ a,b,c,d \}, it suffices to check 4\times 4\times 4=64 operations. And I found that the following operation failed axiom (i):

d*(c*b)=d*b=d but (d*c)*b=b*b=a.

That said, G under the operation * is not a group.

ii. By inspection, the identity of G exists, and that is a because a*x=x*a=x for all x\in \{ a,b,c,d\}. Axiom (ii) is thus satisfied.

iii. There exists d\in G, such that for all x^i\in\{ a,b,c,d\}=G,

d*x^i=x^i*d\neq a.

The claim above is validated by simply checking the identity found to be a in part ii. cannot be found in the entries, and by the fact that a is unique.


Axioms i. and iii. having been failed, I may conclude that G under the operation * cannot form a group.

202004240535 Homework 1 (Q4)

What is the effective temperature of a neutron star with radius 10^6\,\mathrm{cm} which is detected to emit an energy flux F=9\times 10^{-15}\,\mathrm{erg\, s^{-1}\, cm^{-2}}? The distance to this neutron star is 1\,\mathrm{kpc}.


Setup.

Recall that the effective temperature T_{\textrm{eff}} of a blackbody defines the frequency-integrated intensity of radiation at the source:

\sigma_{\textrm{SB}}T^4_{\textrm{eff}}=F=\displaystyle{\int}I_\nu\cos\theta\,\mathrm{d}\nu\,\mathrm{d}\Omega

where \sigma_{\textrm{SB}}=5.67\times 10^{-5}\,\mathrm{erg\cdot cm^{-2}\, K^{-4}} is the Stefan-Boltzmann constant.


Solution. (guesstimate)

The luminosity L of a source is related to the energy flux F detected at some distance d away from the source by

F=\displaystyle{\frac{L}{4\pi d^2}},

from which one can infer the luminosity of the neutron star in question is

\begin{aligned} L & =9\times 10^{-15}\times 4\pi (3.085677581\times 10^{21})^2 \\ & = 1.076845664\times 10^{30}\enspace \mathrm{erg\, s^{-1}} \end{aligned}

where d=1\,\mathrm{kpc}=3.085677581\times 10^{21}\,\mathrm{cm} is given.

Since L=4\pi R^2\sigma_{\textrm{SB}}T_{\textrm{eff}}^4,

\begin{aligned} T^4_{\textrm{eff}} & =L/4\pi R^2\sigma_{\textrm{SB}} \\ T_{\textrm{eff}} & = \bigg(\frac{L}{4\pi R^2\sigma_{\textrm{SB}}}\bigg)^{1/4} \\ & = \bigg(\frac{1.076845664\times 10^{30}}{4\pi \times (10^6)^2\times 5.67\times 10^{-5}}\bigg)^{1/4} \\ T_{\textrm{eff}} & = 197169.6816\enspace \mathrm{K} \end{aligned}

202004240521 Homework 1 (Q5)

Estimate the apparent magnitude of Mercury and Venus when the Earth-planet-Sun forms a right angle. (Assuming the planet reflects 50% of solar light.)


Setup.

Recall the apparent magnitude m_b, the Sun’s luminosity being the reference, is given by the formula

m_b=-0.23+5\log D-2.5\log (L/L_{\odot}),

where D is the distance (in parsec) from the source to the Earth, L the luminosity of the source, and L_\odot =3.8\times 10^{33}\,\mathrm{erg\, s^{-1}} the solar luminosity.


CASE I of Mercury

According to http://coolcosmos.ipac.caltech.edu/ask/25-How-far-is-Mercury-from-Earth-, the average distance between Mercury and Earth is 0.0000024954 pc. From Wikipedia on Mercury (planet), the mean radius of Mercury R_{\textrm{Mercury}} is 2439.7\pm 1\,\mathrm{km}.

The luminosity of Mercury L_{\textrm{Mercury}} due to reflection of sunlight, is related to the solar luminosity L_\odot =3.8\times 10^{33}\,\mathrm{erg\, s^{-1}} by

L_{\textrm{Mercury}}=\displaystyle{\frac{\pi R^2_{\textrm{Mercury}}}{4\pi D^2}}L_\odot,

where the Sun-Earth distance D is one astronomical unit 1\,\mathrm{AU}=1.5\times 10^{13}\,\mathrm{cm}.

Thence one computes

\begin{aligned} L_{\textrm{Mercury}} & = \displaystyle{\frac{\pi (2.4397\times 10^8)^2}{4\pi (1.5\times 10^{13})^2}}\times 3.8\times 10^{33} \\ & = 2.513124127\times 10^{23}\enspace \mathrm{erg\, s^{-1}} \end{aligned}

Thus, the apparent magnitude m_{b,\textrm{mercury}} of Mercury is

\begin{aligned} m_{b,\textrm{mercury}} & =-0.23+5\log (0.0000024954)-2.5\log (6.613484544\times 10^{-11})\\ & = -2.795375004 \end{aligned}


CASE II of Venus

According to http://coolcosmos.ipac.caltech.edu/ask/52-How-far-away-is-Venus-from-Earth-, the average distance between Venus and Earth is 0.0000012963 pc. From Wikipedia on Venus, the mean radius of Venus R_{\textrm{Venus}} is 6051.8\pm 1\,\mathrm{km}.

The luminosity of Venus L_{\textrm{Venus}} due to reflection of sunlight, is related to the solar luminosity L_\odot =3.8\times 10^{33}\,\mathrm{erg\, s^{-1}} by

L_{\textrm{Venus}}=\displaystyle{\frac{\pi R^2_{\textrm{Venus}}}{4\pi D^2}}L_\odot,

where the Sun-Earth distance D is one astronomical unit 1\,\mathrm{AU}=1.5\times 10^{13}\,\mathrm{cm}.

Thence one computes

\begin{aligned} L_{\textrm{Venus}} & = \displaystyle{\frac{\pi (6.0518\times 10^8)^2}{4\pi (1.5\times 10^{13})^2}}\times 3.8\times 10^{33} \\ & = 1.546358626\times 10^{24}\enspace \mathrm{erg\, s^{-1}} \end{aligned}

Thus, the apparent magnitude m_{b,\textrm{venus}} of Venus is

\begin{aligned} m_{b,\textrm{venus}} & =-0.23+5\log (0.0000012963)-2.5\log (4.069364804\times 10^{-10})\\ & = -6.190288956 \end{aligned}


Correction.

Without heed to the 50% reduction of solar light reflection,
this problem need be redone.

202004240406 Homework 1 (Q6)

Derive the Planck function B_\nu.

HINTS: You can make the following steps.

(1) Show that the density of states for photons is given by

g(E)=\displaystyle{\frac{\mathrm{d}N}{\mathrm{d}E}=\frac{8\pi VE^2}{h^3c^3}},

(2) the photon density per unit frequency is given by

\displaystyle{\frac{\mathrm{d}n}{\mathrm{d}\nu}}=\displaystyle{\frac{8\pi \nu^2}{c^3(e^{h\nu /kT+1})}}, and

(3) the definition of the specific intensity B_\nu =I_\nu is the energy flux per unit frequency per unit solid angle.

Note: the energy and momentum of photons are related as

E=h\nu =pc,

the energy flux per unit frequency is given by

h\nu \displaystyle{\frac{\mathrm{d}n}{\mathrm{d}\nu}}c,

and total solid angle for isotropic emission is 4\pi.


Attempts.

In attempting to derive the Planck function, extensive reference was made to the following several sources found on the Internet:

i. G. B. Rybicki & A. P. Lightman. (1979). Radiative Processes in Astrophysics. John Wiley & Sons, Inc.

ii. https://edisciplinas.usp.br/pluginfile.php/48089/course/section/16461/qsp_chapter10-plank(DOT)pdf

iii. https://en.wikipedia(DOT)org/wiki/Planck\%27s_law#Derivation

iv. http://web.phys.ntnu.no/~stovneng/TFY4165_2013/BlackbodyRadiation(DOT)pdf

Here I follow Rybicki and Lightman’s derivation (pp. 20–22, 1979) direct, and have changed only some wordings.


Solution.

The wave vector of the photon of frequency \nu propagating in direction \mathbf{n} is \mathbf{k}=(2\pi /\lambda )\,\mathbf{n}=(2\pi\nu /c)\,\mathbf{n}. For a photon gas in a box of dimension (L_x,L_y,L_z), the number of nodes of the standing wave is n_i=k_iL_i/2\pi for each direction i\in\{ x,y,z\} and for some wave number k_i. For all directions, write the variation of the number of nodes with the wave number

\Delta n_i=\displaystyle{\frac{L_i\Delta k_i}{2\pi}}

The three-dimensional wave vector element \Delta k_x\Delta k_y\Delta k_z\equiv \mathrm{d}^3k has the number of states to be

\Delta N=\Delta n_x\Delta n_y\Delta n_z=\displaystyle{\frac{L_xL_yL_z\,\mathrm{d}^3k}{(2\pi )^3}}

By the fact that L_xL_yL_z=V is the volume of the box and the fact that photons have two independent polarizations (i.e., two states per wave vector \mathbf{k}), for each 3D-wave vector, the number of states for every unit volume is

\displaystyle{\frac{\Delta N}{V\,\mathrm{d}^3k}}=2/(2\pi )^3.

Using solid angle as in spherical coordinates, rewrite

\mathrm{d}^3k=k^2\,\mathrm{d}k\,\mathrm{d}\Omega =\displaystyle{\frac{(2\pi )^3\nu^2\,\mathrm{d}\nu\,\mathrm{d}\Omega}{c^3}}.

Then, the density of states, i.e., the number of states per solid angle per volume per frequency, is given by

\rho_s\stackrel{\textrm{def}}{=}\displaystyle{\frac{\mathrm{d}N}{\mathrm{d}\Omega\,\mathrm{d}V\,\mathrm{d}\nu}}=\displaystyle{\frac{2\nu^2}{c^3}}.

As each state of n photons each of energy h\nu is of energy E_n=nh\nu, and according to statistical mechanics the probability of a state of energy E_n is proportional to \mathrm{exp}(-\beta E_n) (where \beta =1/kT and k=\textrm{ the Boltzmann's constant}), the average energy of each state is

\overline{E}=\displaystyle{\frac{\sum_{n=0}^\infty E_n\mathrm{exp}(-\beta E_n)}{\sum_{n=0}^\infty \mathrm{exp}(-\beta E_n)}}=-\displaystyle{\frac{\mathrm{\partial}}{\mathrm{\partial}\beta}\ln \bigg( \sum_{n=0}^\infty \mathrm{exp}(-\beta E_n)\bigg)}.

Recall the formula for the sum of a geometric series:

\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^\infty}\mathrm{exp}(-\beta E_n)=\displaystyle{\sum_{n=0}^\infty}\mathrm{exp}(-nh\nu\beta )=(1-\mathrm{exp}(-\beta h\nu ))^{-1},

one has therefore the result (in Bose-Einstein statistics)

\overline{E}=\displaystyle{\frac{h\nu\,\mathrm{exp}(-\beta h\nu )}{1-\mathrm{exp}(-\beta h\nu )}=\frac{h\nu}{\mathrm{exp}(h\nu /kT)-1}}.

where it can be seen that the occupation number

n_\nu =\bigg[ \mathrm{exp}\bigg( \displaystyle{\frac{h\nu}{kT}}\bigg) -1\bigg]^{-1}

means the average number of photons in some frequency \nu, as one energy h\nu corresponds to one frequency \nu.

The energy per solid angle per volume per frequency is the product of i. \overline{E}, the average energy of each state, and ii. \rho_s, the density of states.

I.e., \overline{E}\cdot \rho_s = \bigg( \displaystyle{\frac{2\nu^2}{c^3}}\bigg) \displaystyle{\frac{h\nu}{\mathrm{exp}(h\nu /kT)-1}}

Define the specific energy density u_\nu the energy per unit volume per unit frequency range. Then the energy density per unit solid angle can be expressed as

\begin{aligned} u_\nu (\Omega ) & =\displaystyle{\frac{\mathrm{d}E}{\mathrm{d}V\,\mathrm{d}\Omega\,\mathrm{d}\nu}} \\ \dots \textrm{arranging } & \textrm{and equating the previous two equations}\dots \\ u_\nu (\Omega )\,\mathrm{d}V\,\mathrm{d}\nu\,\mathrm{d}\Omega & =\bigg( \displaystyle{\frac{2\nu^2}{c^3}}\bigg) \displaystyle{\frac{h\nu}{\mathrm{exp}(h\nu /kT)-1}}\,\mathrm{d}V\,\mathrm{d}\nu\,\mathrm{d}\Omega \\ \dots \textrm{comparing} & \dots \\ u_\nu (\Omega ) & = \bigg( \displaystyle{\frac{2\nu^2}{c^3}}\bigg) \displaystyle{\frac{h\nu}{\mathrm{exp}(h\nu /kT)-1}} \end{aligned}

Observe that the specific energy density u_\nu and the specific intensity (or brightness) I_\nu are related by

u_\nu (\Omega )=\displaystyle{\frac{I_\nu}{c}}.

Now that the specific intensity, I_\nu, is the same as the source function (of specific emission mechanism), B_\nu.
The frequency distribution is said to be a blackbody form, i.e.,

The Planck function is expressed as

\boxed{I_\nu =B_\nu (T)=\displaystyle{\frac{2h\nu^3}{c^2}}\bigg[ \mathrm{exp}\bigg( \displaystyle{\frac{h\nu}{kT}} \bigg) -1\bigg]^{-1}}

(Units: \mathrm{erg\cdot s^{-1}\cdot Hz^{-1}\cdot cm^{-2}\cdot ster^{-1}})

202004231606 Exercise 1, Section 1.1

Determine whether the vectors emanating from the origin and terminating at the following pair of points are parallel.

(a) (3,1,2) and (6,4,2)

(b) (-3,1,7) and (9,-3,-21)

(c) (5,-6,7) and (-5,6,-7)

(d) (2,0,-5) and (5,0,-2)


Background.

Two nonzero vectors x and y are called parallel if y=tx for some nonzero real number t. (Thus nonzero vectors having the same or opposite directions are parallel.)

Text on pg.3


Solution.

(a) Let x=(3,1,2) and y=(6,4,2). Apparently \nexists\, t\in \mathbb{R} such that y=tx. For otherwise (6,4,2)=t(3,1,2), the system of equations

\begin{aligned} 6 & = 3t \\ 4 & = 1t \\ 2 & = 2t \\ \end{aligned}

is inconsistent. They are not parallel.

(b) Let x=(-3,1,7) and y=(9,-3,-21), then y=-3x. The vectors x and y are in opposite direction and the magnitude of y is three times that of x. They are parallel.

(c) Let x=(5,-6,7) and y=(-5,6,-7). Observe that they are in equal magnitude but in opposite direction, i.e., y=-x. They are also parallel.

(d) Let x=(2,0,-5) and y=(5,0,-2). Assume t\in\mathbb{R} s.t. y=tx, i.e.,

\begin{aligned} 5 & = 2t \\ 0 & = 0t \\ -2 & = 5t \\ \end{aligned}

no way will the first and the third lines agree. They are nonparallel.